Then why did they bother to put that clause about ex-US manufacture in there?
Who knows, but if forced to guess, simple obfuscation would be mine. However, to assume that they think that ex-US manufacture excludes them from patent infringment if selling in the US would be to ascribe gross incompetence to an (otherwise) highly competent company.
Then why did they bother to put that clause about ex-US manufacture in there?
Either whoever wrote the PR is naive, or more likely, they assume most who read the PR are naive and will think that producing the drug ex-US somehow avoids the patent claim.