Attila I think you are not correct here. Think about what happens in a short sale and I think you will conclude that the short does not ever hold a share and therefore he cannot vote. In a short sale, the trader borrows shares in order to sell shares. This is the opposite of the long position, where you buy the share and hold it for a period until you sell it. So the long trader in fact holds shares during that time. The short trader first sells shares, with the commitment to buy the shares at a future date. He cannot vote during the period between the sale of borrowed shares, and his buying of the shares later, because he does not actually own anything. At that future date when he buys the shares in order to complete the transaction, he does not own anything at the end of that transaction, because he already sold those shares up front. It's confusing and I really wish they do away with short selling all together. But this is how it stands and I fail to see any possibility here of the short holding shares that he can vote on.
Edit: Well, my thinking here apparently is incorrect according to AI via Perks post. Confusing mess. This is just another reason short selling should be banned all together.
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