Your comments are consistent with the assumption that Rich is being genuine with shareholders and not just them for a piggy bank to enrich himself.
If, on the other hand, took a glimpse at another possibility...that he using Bellissima and ICNB to enrich himself and himself only. In that case, he could be having a third party (Southridge?) short against his 60M and any shares in the treasury (last fins showed 200M more issues that outstanding, to drive price to $0, slowly over time, so as to not alarm authorities and keep some longs on his side.
Now, from that perspective, selling at $.0018 to debtors, who in turn sell into the float at $.006, then split the profits with Rich, makes a lot more sense.
When something doesn’t make sense, it’s usually because your oblivious to the goal. What is his real goal?
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