News Focus
News Focus
Followers 616
Posts 27445
Boards Moderated 3
Alias Born 11/16/2007

Re: necktoeye post# 53250

Sunday, 02/20/2011 8:16:49 PM

Sunday, February 20, 2011 8:16:49 PM

Post# of 105535
I got it right and I fully understand what A/S is. Let me repost part of it again. I clearly show the percentage is the same pre and post split. That's stock 101.

What decreases the percentage owned is that increase in A/S which will be used. Matt has no choice if he's going to continue with acquisitions and everything else he wants to do. It's not being added for decoration in the filings.

Excerpt copied & pasted from post you responded to:

Here’s a sample:

Current A/S = 6,945,000,000
After a 500/1 r/s it will = 13,890,000
Increase A/S to 100,000,000 after r/s.

500,000,000 shares currently held will become 1,000,000.

Presplit, the 500mil is roughly 7.2% of 6,945,000,000.
Postsplit, the 1mil is roughly 7.2% of 13,890,000


Now, let’s increase the A/S to 100,000,000 after the r/s.

That 1mil held is now 1% of the A/S.

In my mind, 1% is quite a bit less than holding 7.2%. It’s about an 86% drop in percentage owned from pre to post split.

This increase in A/S needs to be considered since it wouldn't be happening if it weren't going to be used. JMO

http://sec.gov/Archives/edgar/data/1289496/000135448811000407/cbai_pre14a.htm






In Reply to 'necktoeye'

Seems you might not understand what THE A/S is or what it contains.

Your assuming your percnetage as if the 100 mill on the A/S will be sold the day after the split.


10000000 shares = X / O/S pre

2000 = X/ O/S post

Same %. exactely the same as a matter of FACT.


% only decreases if they sell shares from the A/S

Get it write.




GLTA... KarinCA ;)

"Be kinder than necessary, for everyone you meet is fighting some kind of battle."


Unleash the power of Level 2

Spot liquidity moves with access to US order books.

Sign Up