Paychest Inc (PYCT)

[adanac]

Yesterday's FTD (Failure To Deliver)??

Trade#4===11:00:32=====570,000===@ASK===.0001
Trade#5===11:09:15===1,000,100===@ASK===.0001
Trade#6===11:09:15===1,800,000===@ASK===.0001 ***
Trade#7===11:45:59===3,729,497===@ASK===.0001 ***

At 11:09:15
Was it 2 different trades that 'happened' to go thru at the same time. or was it 1.
If 1, it was a BUY (2,800,100 at the 'ASK of .0001'), a 'SELL' would have shown as being done 'at the 'NO BID''

WHY THEN WAS HALF THE SHARES 'SOLD' DURING THE TRANSACTION, 'FTD' AT THE END OF THE DAY.

FOLLOWING IS DOM's POST 63630 TRYING TO EXPLAIN THE FTD REPORT.
IT IS NOT HIS EXPLANATION, JUST SOMETHING HE COPIED FROM ANOTHER BB TO HELP EXPLAIN IT TO ME

On this issue of short reports.
This post from another site describes what is a logical explanation for the number of shares in the FINRA report.

"In response to msg 98789 by Panglozz ignore topic, view thread , thread start
Finra Short Sale data: new info supports the "anxious long" seller as source
The parent post of mine drew attention to the Finra Short Sale daily report and its unusual volume activity.
I have spoken with a Finra PR representative, and I can now provide a plausible explanation of the volume reports.
Finra reports as short sales the sales of Long security holders using Market Makers who are uncertain that they can find a buyer or price for thinly traded stocks.
The sequence begins when a long (bag) security holder calls up the Market specialist and tells them, "I want to unload 1000 shares of this real dog".
The specialist tells the bag-holder, "We'll do our best, give us a couple of hours to try, don't do anything yet".
The specialist then sells *Short* from its own account 1000 Shares when it finds one or more buyers at an acceptable price.
Once the shares have been sold, the specialist covers the short with the shares that its client wanted to sell in the first place.
This process occurs because otherwise the specialist is on the hook to purchase the shares from the client, and it honestly doesn't know if it can unload the turkeys.
To avoid reporting double the actual transaction volume, only the initial "short" sale is reported to Finra as the consolidated transaction volume.
So in thinly traded stocks, the Finra short volume is a proxy for anxious long security holders pressing their stock-brokers to unload. The absence of any material change in short interest corroborates the supposition that the "short sales" as reported don't actual reflect short sentiment or market. The short isn’t really a short it is the execution of a proposed long sale by a market maker working on behalf of a client.
In SCO's case the "short volume" represents stranded bag holders exiting their nightmare at the temporarily enhanced price."

SO, DID SOMEONE HAVE 2,800,100 SHARES TO SELL, SO THE MM FOUND A 'BUYER', SOLD SHORT, TOOK THE $280.00 FROM THE 'BUYER'; THEN WENT BACK TO THE 'SELLER', WHO ONLY REALLY HAD 1,000,100 SHARES TO SELL. SO THE MM GAVE THE 'SELLER' $100.00, THE MM KEEPS THE $180.00 BUT IS NOW 'SHORT' 1,800,000 SHARES.