Why exactly must the increased volume on the sell side indicate they are converting at below par value (or at a discount). There is NOTHING in that to indicate it is anything more than the likelihood of some smaller debt holders converting their debt to stock. And why should the debt holders be even remotely put off at the ability to convert their debt, dollar-for-dollar, for stock that people here are all too willing to scoop up? Why should this indicate that people are converting at below par price (which most states won't allow)? If your new theory had merit, I would think that these debt holders that could convert stock at below par value, as you keep trying to get us to believe, they would convert 100% of their debt right now -- because the market value can NEVER get lower than 0.0001, they would be crazy not to. If that were the scenario happening, we would see billions of shares converted, and hundreds of millions of shares on the sell. So far we have seen 10's of millions of shares equating to $1,000's of dollars -- small change.
I do not believe your assessment is accurate.
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