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Phil(Hot Rod Chevy)

06/25/05 10:58 AM

#66732 RE: Dspetry #66729

The insider/s that sold the shares the week after the R/S was/were selling short naked because the shares did not exist.

There were only 11 shares in existence at that time, yet she/he/they sold shares that have been reported to be around 138,000 shares, each with a due bill attached for the upcoming 3MM/1 F/S.

Any MM or broker that resold those shares were indeed naked shorting because there was no stock to borrow.

There was none to borrow because there were only 11 real shares in existence, and only one was reported to be a "free trading" share.

I know it boggles the imagination,

But if you really want to get boggled, read the companies proposed solution to the problem.

LOL

Have fun,
Phil
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hatemms

06/25/05 11:19 AM

#66736 RE: Dspetry #66729

if the market makers naked shorted the stock(sold stock that they did not have) the company is not responsible for that, the market maker needs to buy the stock or get it from some place to deliver, the campany said they sold 138,000 shares pre-split, volume that week was about 500,000, say 250,000 were buys, that leaves about 112,000 shares unaccounted for, i bet the market makers sold those shares like they always do, sell something that they do not have...the TA also said you will get the shares if you were not short, confirms my theory, but we will see...