very odd. A private company buying a public company, the O/S would remain the same wouldnt it? If anything, the private company would need to gain controlling interest and own more than 50%, correct? So did Matt issue and buy shares?
How can the O/S go from 500mil to 2.9bil when only 365 mil shares traded during that time? I guess it would mean that dilution didn't really occur then? Who owns the extra 2 billion shares now.... Matt? Or some other company that may not be healthyscience
If thats the case, then the merger may not be with healthtrim right. Because if Matt owns both, who would he be giving the restricted shares too unless its a different company. Am I right or wrong? what's your opinion?
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