I'm not sure if this has been brought up before in discussion of the forced liquidation by JPM, but I'm wondering the following:
Is it possible that JPM's forced liquidation is a way to get the EC to accept a lesser offer? I say this because if the EC's intentions and approval are for both pre/post shareholders, then all those ex-employees would most likely hold pre-seizure shares. Therefore, if the EC was to take a "utilitarian" point on the matter, it would be to accept an offer so that those shareholders aren't forced to sell at such a low price.
Any thoughts?