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Re: fsshon post# 153128

Monday, 02/22/2010 10:04:14 PM

Monday, February 22, 2010 10:04:14 PM

Post# of 749756
I'm not sure if this has been brought up before in discussion of the forced liquidation by JPM, but I'm wondering the following:

Is it possible that JPM's forced liquidation is a way to get the EC to accept a lesser offer? I say this because if the EC's intentions and approval are for both pre/post shareholders, then all those ex-employees would most likely hold pre-seizure shares. Therefore, if the EC was to take a "utilitarian" point on the matter, it would be to accept an offer so that those shareholders aren't forced to sell at such a low price.

Any thoughts?

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