"there seems to be some confusion about ownership and voting powers"
There's no confusion over the fact that the PR said that a group owned 100% of the preferred shares and then Pillay recently said that no shareholder owned any more than 20%. Voting rights aren't an issue as far as those two statements are concerned-it's a question of who owns the company and how.
If you believe differently then please explain, perhaps you will enlighten us.
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