I thought that generics were about 15 percent less expensive than Vascepa. But this article makes it sound like Vascepa costs as much as four times as much or at least double the price of generics. Is that true? If so, how can generics produce the pills at such low cost since Amarin presumably is producing much more of it and thus would have lower manufacturing costs? And, if generics are selling it so much cheaper, how do they make any money at all off of Vascepa since Amarin's margins aren't that great to begin with?
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