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DAR53

04/03/24 3:14 PM

#422944 RE: JRoon71 #422942

It seems to me if a doctor prescibes a drug that is not approved for that indication, then he could / would be charged for infringing. If there is a patent, i.e., V for CVD, then a doctor prescribing 'off label' or not should still be considered a violation and therfore infringing.