I had looked up cashless options under Investopedia and the example wasnt very helpful, nor at another place
What taxation are you talking about? If he chooses to only exercise his right to buy and decides to not sell why would there be a tax gain?
Maybe there is a very good reason why he sold the portion that he did. Maybe it has to do with the ability to make the purchase in the first place. After all even though he should only have to pay $.84, someone has to come up with current market prices to make the actual purchase at current prices.
I was only pointing out what the situation appeared to be to me.I was not trying to establish fear or doubt. If someone can explain this more fully I am all ears.
I did notice he has a large number of other options. I don’t know when those are exercisable, so I don’t know how meaningful they are. Do you?