It appears that you don’t understand the question still. I’m asking how can the price drop AFTER respective Lwlg positions are already in place. As I’ve said three times now institutional ownership and share ownership is basically unchanged and yet the price has dropped dramatically. I want an example that shows what causes the drop.
I gave you a simple example of how retail alone can cause a price drop: person A owns shares at $12. Person A decides he is willing to sell at only $4 due to disappointment. Person B buys his shares. Done. No change in retail ownership and no need for shorts or institutions to explain the drop.
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