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Gametime22

05/18/22 8:56 AM

#49903 RE: ed7777777 #49902

Does anyone understand the below statement fully?

For example, if someone currently owns 40 Million shares of DRNK. Sinannac is going to register the warrants so that shareholder can convert them into freely tradable shares. After that the shareholder exercising the warrants must pay Sibannac the cash value of those warrants. Seems like we would be paying for the shares twice. When we initially purchased the shares and now to convert the to Sibannac pay again? Therefore, it seems like our current shares have no value after the merger if we essentially need to buy them again.


"Sibannac intends to register the warrants so that NOHO shareholders can convert them into freely tradable shares. Sibannac will price the Warrants at a discount to the market at the time of distribution, to the benefit of NOHO shareholders. Any shareholder exercising the warrants must pay Sibannac the cash value of the warrants, which will be recognized as income of the Company."