This could very well be why they have been so vehemently denying for years, they are responsible for the liabilities/"repurchase obligations" of certain loans, made by Deutsche Bank et al.
If they are indeed just a "bridge bank" then they wouldn't be liable for these claims, it would be the FDIC-R(???). One has to ask then, why would JPM not assert this fact to alleviate at least some of their substantial legal woes?
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