I understand if you dont have an answer, but you just assuming something that dosnt make sense and is mathematically imposible. Float 740 mill Issued 940 mill There is a 200 mill diference, so it couldnt be absorbed by the market, and the new management cant do nothing about a payment the old one made more than a year prior to the change, no need to get defensive, Im asking a legitimate question and thanks for the link.
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