wbmw, what do you think about the legal implications of this? I understand that both AMD and Intel have x86 cross-licensing agreements and AMD pays royalties to Intel but if Intel indeed chooses to use AMD64 can they really call it something else if it's identical to AMD64? Like all the companies that use HT, they call it HT. AMD called the 32-bit CPUS x86 compatible.
For them to call it IA32E it must be somehow different than AMD64.
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