Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[stockanalyze]

the conclusion on the last page “Defendants have steadfastly maintained that the share price drop did not cause any injury to post-Third Amendment purchasers”

when you flip it, doesn't it mean they admit that pre Third Amendment purchasers were caused injury. does it?

if this holds, they pretty much don’t payout anything as all of pre 3rd amend purchasers have exited imo.

isn't there a law that rights travel with shares? can someone cite it? they appear to make a case but i didn't bother to read, just jumped to the last page as always