Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[Donotunderstand]

BIG CALL FOR HELP

For now - ignoring the articles next paragraph about what lower courts are to now decide ----- lets come back to that language later?

Here is what the article said ---- written by a journalist - not likely a lawyer - etc. - but boy oh boy - it says things in a way I have not seen anywhere to include any post here --- I think - see bold

The court also provided an opinion about the so-called net worth sweep, which preferred shareholders had hoped would be declared illegal. The Supreme Court ruled that the net worth sweep was legal but that it could only be done for the correct purpose.

I never saw that last bolded part
My read and memory from many articles and posts here ---- SCOTUS said FHFA on the NWS was 100% within its powers to act for benefit of F and F - FHFA - and thus US citizens and this fell in that description - NO IFS ANDS OR BUTS OR CONDITION ON CORRECT PURPOSE?

Help ?

Did this author - go too far - as I think they did?

Or are the lower courts to NOW investigate PURPOSE? (again - I thought purpose was to help agency and thus the taxpayer and issued done and sealed)

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