Wow, I didn't know that. Thanks for the explanation. So a short seller in a 5% yielding stock that goes principly nowhere for a year (share price that is), actually goes against him to the tune of 5% for the same period (assuming no change in yield of course).
Edit: I see Yahoo! quoting its yield at 1.83 (I thought it was much higher)..
Zeev, wouldn't buying that exact allocations on all of the DIA components separately, and shorting the ETF (DIA) effectively capture any existing yield within it risk free? A lot of work, but would it work?