question for you about short covering, shorts can cover at the ask price of .0001 when they buy to cover correct? if so why weren't they covering all along? Past volume isn't much at all for over 6 weeks from the end of May until now. Seems like if one was short they wouldn't wait around that long, especially if so many shares could be bought at .0001 or .0002. I bought in here just in case it does run but couldn't make sense of the post I read so maybe enlighten me if you would. Thanks!
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