Fred,
If I am able to read between the lines here, are you suggesting that a literal translation of the Old Testament might not be wholly applicable to "modern" times (if it was in fact ever intended to be taken at face value)? And that much of what is written in the OT has become somewhat anachronistic, if not downright archaic? And finally, do you suppose it's possible that someone with a particular "agenda", eg. hatred/fear of homosexuality, might use the OT to suit his or her own particular needs at a given time and place? (You'd let me know if I'm heading off track here, right?)
Anyway, thanks for the insight.
Andrew