<<Anti-semitism is hatred and discrimination toward the Jewish people>>
Yes, that is how the term is commonly interpreted.
But why use the term "Semite" ? Why not say anti-Jewish ?
Your biblical references and justifications for God's favor of the Jews do not add weight to the argument at hand. I found no reference to the term "semite" in the Bible (at least from memory), so I do not see the point of bringing in the Old Testament.
Commonly, the term Semite refers to peoples who historically speak one of the related Semetic languages. For Jews this obviously is Hebrew, which for affairs of state was resurrected from the dead by the creation of the state of Israel. Aramaic, arabic, and related tongues are also semitic, and hence so are their speakers.
I never understood the introduction of this term to express predjudice toward Jews. The term "anti-semetic" is just too broad in its original meaning. For those few of us who prefer the original meaning, its use to describe the hatred of one semetic people for another is absurd.
My guess the term "anti-semetic" in its current usuage came about from spin-doctors in the 20's who did not want to directly say "anti-Jewish". But why ? I would appreciate any comments on the historical use of this term.
-wg
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