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Drexion2004

05/24/11 11:32 AM

#6016 RE: treit2002 #6013

1) Shrug, I've already clarified what I ment from that sentence.

2) If the 40M is in current assets, it means it will be paid within a year -- That means it could be paid in March 2012 right, sometime next year? Thats over a year after the JANUARY sale correct? Thus my original point could still be correct?

Frankly, does it matter if the payment is in March or December or even August? Its still a freaking long time after the dairy sale to be paid -- Why does SIAF lose the rights to the dairy profits before it is PAID for the sale? (This was the original gist of my point)

-Fernando