It's not "infringing" if you don't sell it, (e.g., it's for research only (unlikely goal)) or you only sell it in places that haven't granted a patent. (I'm not sure about the latter. Correct me if I'm wrong.)
If as has been extensively speculated here, Teva used another company's product in partnership, filed two years prior to mnta, how is it possible they could be infringing? I haven't heard anyone claim Teva reverse engineered their product.
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