majordan44, if I may, If you are hoping to arbitrage this stock on some "single liquidation dividend" there some things you should know. Stocks typically drop on the ex-div (literally "without dividend") date, not the date the dividend was issued or the record date of the dividend. Stock listings often show this change as an "adjusted closing price", where they list the actual closing price and the price that the stock would be if you added back in the dividend purchasers would not get on that day. The dividend itself may come along more than a month after the ex-div date.
However, stocks don't always drop, and sometimes they drop more than the amount of the dividend. In my time purchasing stocks, I've both bought a dividend (purchased right before ex-div date) and bought right after the ex-div, but before the dividend was distributed. Why shouldn't one buy in that time if they see a good deal? It's the same as purchasing at any other time. You simply consider the dividend as part of the overall stock value equation.
To answer a question none of you have asked, sometimes sellers screw up the idea of the three different ex-div, record, and distribution dates, and on the rare occasion you can take advantage of that but RARELY. I once sold a stock with a hefty dividend on its ex-div date after the price went up for no apparent reason. Of course, you have a few million other people looking for opportunities like that, so nobody gets rich off a few peoples' misfires. And people who make dividend plays almost always know what they are doing; a lot of the ignorant or stupid stock investors were flushed out of the game when the stock market bubble burst a few years ago.
On the ex-div date the stock drops (approximately) by the dividend amount since, obviously the buyer will no longer be entitled to the dividend. But the physical payment of the dividend should not have any impact on the price itself, why would it? So the buyer that bought it the day before the payment date knows that he will not receive it but is buying at a lower price because of this.
Of course, the markets are not perfect, but in theory nobody loses and you cannot arbitrage with dividend payments.
It is my belief that the main reason you have not seen a jump to say .003 has everything to do with the claim that they will essentially eliminate the company after receiving the proceeds of the sale and by so doing killing the stock ex-dividend. And because it is not clear exactly what the nature of the proceeds will be, cash or unrestricted stock in some heretofore unnamed public entity, even more uncertainty regarding that adds to the inablity of the stock to hold a bid above .0002.
Please let me add that you should check the accuracy of everything I have stated and come to your own conclusions however what I have stated is the basic mechanics and nothing new under the sun for an experienced trader with more than 20 years personal and professional experience and several years of formal education in this and related studies.
Market Data 
Markets 
AI
