<<Why then would the FDA trust that MNTA Lovenox is fully characterize Lovenox and TEVA's is not fully characterized. The only answer of course would be they don't, and both will be approved as fully characterize or neither will be, or they trust the boyfriend. >>
I don't follow this logic. Presumably both Teva and MNTA have some evidence to support their assertions, this is not a question of the FDA taking either parties bare assertion that the product is equivalent. So I don't see why it is impossible that MNTA's evidence might not be stronger - -or vice versa.
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