in absolute terms there appears to be a difference, but proportinally both about doubled the RR compared to placebo. even if absolute difference is mroe relevant, i woudl argue the 8% spread in a rather small study in a disease with a good deal of heterogeneity between subjects and an endpoint that relies on some subjective components (vs a "harder" endpoint) is meaningless
The relevance of the absolute difference is debatable but I otherwise understand your point. I think the more important point though, which we can likely agree on, is that both drugs appear to be clearly effective in this patient population (methotrexate failures). This is of great importance to RIGL given that R788 is its lead drug and primary value driver going forward.