<< Prescribing an off-label product (Avasin) for a serious medical condition such as AMD is much easier to justify (to a judge and jury) than prescribing an off-label product for a cosmetic indication.>>
It's not a crime to prescribe a drug for off-label use, is it? I think the crime srsmgja is referring to is insurance fraud, though it is not completely clear to me where the fraud is since a prescription does not, I believe, have a diagnosis on it. If some had no insurance or were not going to make a claim, it would not be a crime to prescribe a drug for off-label use, would it?
I'm not suggesting this is relevant to Lumigan/Latisse, it is more of a general point.
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