>because interferon is likely to have better efficacy against viral strains resistant to polymerase and protease inhibitors<
I do not get your point. Any drug that becomes ineffective due to resistance will be dropped from the cocktail. Why would such a drug automatically be replaced by interferon rather than another oral agent?
>besides - how many oral agents and proven combinations do you think will be approved before IN-lambda makes it to market?<
Why would every combination need to be approved in order to be tried in the second line? Interferon itself won’t be approved in the second line following failure on a non-ifn regimen so, again, I do not get your point.
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