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docbanker

03/28/08 1:50 PM

#4010 RE: exwannabe #4009

Why does DD find it more risky to own something with a p value of 10 to the minus 7 versus a company with a drug that got a not approvable (MNTA)? Why is GTCB attractive (to whoever said it that their mgmt team and such sucked i agree- i met their IR guy at a conference and he was like WIlford Brimley)?

Is he trying to be a contrarian indicator?
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DewDiligence

03/28/08 1:56 PM

#4011 RE: exwannabe #4009

>I still think DD could have given a better example. Satraplatin comes quickly to mind.<

I didn’t cite Satraplatin as an example because the p-value with many zeros turned out to be for a non-standard endpoint (a composite PFS with some novel components).

Avastin (in breast cancer) and Vectibix had many zeros in their p-values for an established endpoint (conventionally defined PFS) and yet the applications still ran into significant troubles along the way to approval.

The impetus for this thread is that a poster on this board likes to cite the many zeros in Proellex’s phase-2 p-value as justification for Joe to use the phrase slam dunk in describing the drug or its clinical trials. My contention is that this viewpoint is naïve. Regards, Dew