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JimHaynes

04/12/07 12:41 PM

#5182 RE: gershfinance #5181

A 4% dilution justifies a 9% drop in price, when you can see such dilution occuring endlessly into the future.

JIM HAYNES
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ruengies3

04/12/07 1:43 PM

#5201 RE: gershfinance #5181

gershfinance, you wrote, "the dilution on today's share count (fully diluted) would be just over 4%." How does the math work on this? It seems intuitively wrong that >doubling the number of shares would only dilute the share count by 4%. Thanks.