The basic premise of supply and demand is understood. The question was more related to the relationship between unrestricted shares and the float. With the increase in unrestricted shares there has not been a corresponding increase in the float which means that the increase in unrestricted shares are not being traded on the open market. Isn’t that correct? From what is seen the float has remained the same in the time period you noted in the previous post. Isn’t the float the factor of supply and demand rather than unrestricted shares? In advance thanks for clarifying this.
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