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Musical Shares

05/12/25 9:57 PM

#55059 RE: Sheepdog #55058

I didn't say they were from a note.

I said:

He can issue the common shares to himself at par value (or at least it was supposed to be at par value) or a predetermined price.



You repeated what I said but didn't explain to me why they have to convert to "market value." Which is what you told me they should have done.

It was a conversion of debt to equity. It is supposed to be at market value. Market value at the time was .001

It is a coincidence that .001 is also the par value.



The only reason why I brought up toxic notes is because they can/do convert based off of market value. It was just an example.

He isn't converting anything. He simply just wrote a check to himself. Hence, share selling scheme.
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pumper_stumper

05/12/25 10:51 PM

#55061 RE: Sheepdog #55058

Well then, this would be a clear case to get the SEC/FINRA/OTCMarkets involved, as the shares were issued at a price under par. Anyone going to initiate this?