Question - So how does this work with trading continuing after the date you reference? (12/11/24) On that day, say there were no shorts to confuse thing. Every vote could be cast by the shareholders of record. Then, 6 weeks later there are probably at least several million shares were sold, do the shareholders as of 12/11 still vote even though they are no longer shareholders? Can you confirm that is the way it works?
That makes no sense. Sale to Ampersand was announced on Nov 6. So the buyers had more than a month to buy shares and vote yes to the sale. How is that fair? The buyer should not be able to do that.
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