The bullishness is inherent in the transaction itself, so it applies irrespective of future share-price movement.
Sounds like you are saying that the transaction is bullish even if the stock trades at a fraction of the current price many years hence, as long as the officer has not sold?
I find it hard to believe that a purchase today could be still be considered bullish in a 5-10 years retrospective, rather than bullish at the time.
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