repeating - as I still am not sure I understand SP v LP -- repeating your sentence
In the case with Fannie Mae the Treasury's holding of senor preferred stock in the amount of $120.8 billion, with a liquidation preference of $185.5 billion.
Is the senior preferred stock in the amount of 120.8B a part of the 185.5B (which is the SP plus excess dividends ?) or is the amount the GOV believes it invested in FNMA alone the combination of the two ???
I believe - the LP includes the original or core value of the Senior Preferred Stock and since it does not change in share price or number of shares (does not trade) --- the LP "was invented" to count the increase in GOV's view of the increase in value --- from 120.8B to the 185.5B. An article by TH seemed to separate them - for F and F combined --- as if you add them?