It appears your example assumes a 10:1 reverse split. My comments are:
1) How is the company going to get the price to .15 pre (potential) split and
2) Current outstanding shareholders represent 975,000,000 shares out of 1b authorized, At a 10:1 split the new structure would represent 97,500,000 share ownership with an authorized at 1b. The risk I see is the company could dilute current holders with the issuance of potentially the difference between 1b and their 97,500,000 shares to note holders, new investors etc.
The question as I see it is will the company reduce the authorized shares on a par basis post split as exits pre split. Right now current holders own 975k out of 1b authorized representing a 97.5% stake. If a 10:1 split is authorized current holders will represent 97,500,000 shares. To maintain a 97.5% stake the max authorize would need to be 100m shares, not 1b.
If the only motivation for a potential reverse is to increase the share price to uplist elsewhere, why not do this- it protects current holders and satisfies an increased price for uplisting - also ensures no further dilution risk post split as pre split. Seems like a win -win to me.
My opinions.