The south needed to refine cotton into textiles and that was done in the north, cotton had no intrinsic value otherwise.
Who wrote that the north was blameless? Please cite where I stated that if you're implying that I did.
Everyone who owned slaves and profited from the slave trade - north, south, Europe - made money by keeping Texas in a slave owning country, as opposed to it being in a country where slavery was illegal. How can that not be the case?
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