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Andyg59

10/23/20 7:17 PM

#637000 RE: xoom #636994

No it does not work like that. You would need to take this approach and determine what the forecasted capital structure should be for escrow holders based on what the pre bankcruptcy capital ratio was using this concept as a guide:

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/shareholderequityratio.asp

Then compute the actual capital ratios in which escrow shares values are zero in the last consolidated financials. You then should be able to extrapolate and identify how much the equity component will need to be increased in order for any realignment to take place to include an escrow value. You then can back into a conversion ratio thereafter.