"So, if I follow the gist of what you are putting out here correctly, are you suggesting that escrow holders are likely to receive COOP shares directly sufficient to rebalance ownership?
And that when this happens (if?) it will be accompanied by some transfer of cash/securities into COOP itself - probably assets that have been held in safe harbor somewhere,..."
To anyone:
If there is ANY cash involved, WHY would it be sent to COOP, instead of the Escrow holders.
I 'thought'? everything was being turned into cash, over these long years? Who decides 'my/our' cash, should first buy COOP shares before a distribution?
And if it turns out they ARE buying shares, buying them at the highest point in years, SURE CUTS DOWN on how many shares each would receive.
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