"B is responsible for the 95 and 97 percent reduction. Again, the placebo, more accurately the control is not a comparator. It only acts to show that the only difference between the two cultures and treatments was B."
I thought I understood that from the gitgo. It doesn't seem to address the question as posed by PP: "So, how good are Brilacidin results?"
I haven't been disabused of the notion that OF COURSE Brilacidin is almost 100% better than nothing. Was that the market moving revelation? If not, what was?
Apparently.....
5th time wasn't a charm, I'm not smart enough to be a simpleton and someone said that even they could understand, as if you wouldn't have expected them to be able to.
So somebody has to be able to dumb down the answers for me...I fully admit that I need that.