You really derive pleasure from re-iterating the obvious, don't you? Did I say there was a 3/5 rule after slavery was abolished? No, I didn't. Another of your bullshit straw arguments.
But did they change the calculus about how the electoral college representation was determined after the influx of those new voters? Oh wait, they couldn't vote when they were freed.
Let's see a link for your When African-American were no longer slaves, they were counted fully for representation calculation purposes.
hint: the emancipation proclamation didn't do that. It came later. But don't strain yourself in making up premises to bolster a deflection argument about how voters in blue states on the coast are under-represented, which is the point that seems to stretch beyond your ability to concentrate.