Got it. So what you’re saying is everyone owning shares here will lose everything and should sell? All hope is lost? Bankruptcy law and law in general only ever has one outcome?
Why is the stock at .02 and not 0.000x? I’m trying to have a discussion but keep getting the same answer to every question. All I’m asking is for evidence that states shareholders receive nothing and the part of the law stating this always holds true. Pretty sure statements like “almost always” mean there is always a possibility of something different happening... doesn’t matter to me really. I’m comfortable where I stand. Just want to take part to understand your opinion. Thanks
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