I think the primary difference is that it would be an explicit guarantee with a stated amount. Whereas with the government's implicit guarantee the amount is unknown or unknowable.
I'm not sure if this is something they'd consider - but it addresses the argument "private gains/public losses" rhetoric.
contrarian bull Hmm.. reading backwards I misunderstood the question. It was about a fee for underwriting F&F, not underwriting those mortgages...
But - isn't there already such a fee? Or was that one of the proposed "fixes"?