But - by law - by what are the standard and absolute rules of preferred stock and dividends - nothing has been paid back
Again - I am long
Again - add up all the dollars AND ASSUME a loan then the math can say all or 90% is paid
but reality - but facts - the money was "advanced" as an equity investment so nothing is paid back - not a dime - until those shares are called in and deemed/declared paid back (i.e. no longer owned by the shareholder)
Could such a call back and declaration be made on the basis of what has been paid as dividends --- sure if the law is changed (see the bills) or via negotiation and arrangement
but any one saying that anything has legally been paid back is the one spinning the truth and math and facts to what is not real