As I pointed out, the "findings" are not accurate. The poster's implication is that the stock will never again trade.
The stock is frozen for the debenture to occur, as described in the PRs PAIM put out before June 15th. The confusion here is that the freeze did not occur on the 15th. It is occuring now. This is appears to be a function of DTC or the brokers, not PAIM.
If the stock were so easily accessible, how come a lot of shares have sold for $.0002?
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