I just want to correct a misunderstanding that I've seen on this board and on the Yahoo board. The p=0.48 should not be considered as a probability of hypoglycemia. It is simply the probability that the small increase seen in hypoglycemia after Increlex treatment is the result of chance. Consequently, a high p value like that indicates that it is a result of chance alone and not due to biological effects of Increlex.
The numbers that really matter right now are the numbers of patients. The one that befuddles me is how TRCA made such small revenues out of the number of patients that they had in the first quarter, unless they signed them all up on the last week of the quarter.
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